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Sabellius -> RE: Could Jesus have sinned? (4/28/2008 5:36:11 PM)
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quote:
ORIGINAL: drmark quote:
He was never tempted immorally, as the Hebrews passage clearly demonstrates His temptations were without sin. Do you think, if for one brief second, that Christ was tempted to murder? Fornicate? Sabellius, I am really trying to comprehend this position of yours as it may be more a semantic difference than a theologically substantive one. Let's skip momentarily the first temptation since it may be clouded by physical desires (severe hunger after a prolonged fast). Christ's second temptation is clearly a test of His ability not to revel in His divine nature. Why do you consider that not be a moral test? Certainly, the opportunity to worship Satan in exchange for all the world's wealth has a definite moral basis, right? So if the temptations are real and have morally based choices associated with them, how can one say Christ was never tempted morally? Are pride and greed any less moral than murder and fornication? Comprehend? Here is the irrefutable point. The only way, I repeat the only way, that Jesus "could" sin is if He was only a man. Only if we can consider Him as only man, apart from His divine person, could He attain a propensity to sin. (If we do so we have nicely accomplished Nestorianism btw) Was that possible? No, He was both fully God and man. Therefore, since this separation cannot take place, and would violate the union of the Father and Son, Jesus could not and did not sin. It is really that simple. Since Jesus did not possess a sin nature, there was nothing within Him to respond to immoral temptation. People sin because there is an inner response to the outer temptation. While on earth Jesus said that no one could take His life except He lay it down willingly (John 10:18). It is congruent with Scripture to suggest then, if Christ had authority over life and death, it is also possible that he had authority over sin. Jesus was a perfect example for us, and His impeccability only supports this. Some approach the idea of "temptation" completely backward, IMHO. I do not believe the purpose of the temptations were to see if Christ could sin, but to show that He could not sin. If we look closely at when the temptations occur we also can see that they are at the very beginning of Christ's earthly ministry. Israel had lots of warnings that this indeed was a Messiah who was God and man. Jesus was their unique savior. When you look at the temptations of Christ in Matthew 4, it was not Satan who initiated the temptation but the Holy Spirit (Matt. 4:1). If Christ could have sinned, then the Holy Spirit solicited Christ to sin, but that is something God does not do (James 1:13). If we say Jesus could sin, then we should evidence where Jesus was even tempted to do evil that would indeed bring about sin? As it concerns the Biblical evidence you'll not find any there. Jesus was tempted, surely. I do not believe Jesus experienced any immoral temptations however. This does not make him void of human nature. Sin is not part of human nature, it was later added. quote:
Romans 8:3: For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: The word "likeness" is used here. This clearly does not mean exactness. In fact it implies that there is something concerning it that does not necessarily correspond. Christ looked like sinful humanity. Again sin is not the property of humanity at all. James, the brother of Jesus, made it clear that temptation only becomes sin when the lust that brought the temptation is conceived (James 1:15-16). It is possible to be tempted and not sin, as many of us can testify of this fact. It is a fact that temptations can be both sinful and innocent. In fact, James 1:2-3 speaks to believers about “divers temptations”, i.e. innocent temptations, for the trying of our faith. As I have pointed out I hold that Christ could not sin, yet was tempted. Thus, those temptations were indeed genuine because they were temptations that he a. could do, and b. could feel. 1. Jesus was the God-Man. 2. God cannot sin and Jesus, doing the will of the Father, was tempted to do things that only He as God could do (miracles) without undeifying Himself. 3. Thus, the temptations of Christ were genuine. W.G.T. Shedd comments, quote:
“The appeal of Satan, in the last of the three temptations, to a supposed pride and ambition in Christ was met with the avaunt: “Get you hence, Satan.” Christ had no sinful lust of any sort. This is taught in Christ’s own words: “The prince of this world comes and has nothing in me” (John 14:30). It is also taught in Heb. 4:15: “We have a high priest who was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.” This text teaches that the temptations of Christ were “without sin” in their source and nature and not merely, as the passage is sometimes explained, that they were “without sin” in their result. The meaning is not that our Lord was tempted in every respect exactly as fallen man is—by inward lust as well as by other temptations—only he did not outwardly yield to any temptation; but that he was tempted in every way that man is, excepting by that class of temptations that are sinful because originating in evil and forbidden desire.” quote:
Hebrews 4:15 KJV: For we have not a high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin. I concur with Shedd that the “temptations of Christ were ‘without sin’ in their source and nature…” Some translations make such an interpretation very possible, while others do not. "likeness" is Greek homoiotes which refers to similarity and not necessarily exactness. The BAGD says it means “in quite the same way” yet this can easily refer to the fact that Christ was tempted just like we are, yet those temptations were “without sin” or “apart from sin”. I believe that the most compelling evidence on this matter is scripture itself. Hebrews 4:15 is a crucial text to impeccability and the nature of Christ’s temptations. I do feel that the “identity” of Christ is the most compelling evidence for impeccability; however, I also feel that the text also creates a frame-work for that—His temptations were without sin or evil doing. Compellingly, the scriptures never tell us of a time when Christ was tempted immorally—as the God-Man this would be impossible to reconcile. Shedd went on to say: quote:
If Christ, like fallen man, were subject to that class of forbidden appetences and selfish desires mentioned in Gal. 5:19, 21, namely, “idolatry, hatred, emulation, envyings, murder, wrath, uncleanness, drunkenness, and such like,” the dignity and perfection of his character would be gone, and he could not be looked up to with the reverence that he is. The words of the dead kings to the fallen king of Babylon would apply: “Are you also become weak, as we? Are you become like unto us?” (Isa. 14:10) To say that Christ was tempted immorally is to say that Christ was tempted and felt the urge to succumb to those immoral temptations, e.g. stealing, murder, and fornication. Whether they are minimal and fleeting such a temptation is contrary to the character of God and the Union. My argument, I believe, can be summed up like this: 1. Genuine temptations are felt and desired, if only for a “split second”. 2. The nature of God, in Christ, excludes desires of immorality. 3. Therefore, God—in Christ—was tempted but tempted apart from immorality. Some have said that Jesus could not have worshiped Satan without committing moral sin, for that would have been idolatry (See Matthew 4). Although I do agree that it would have been a moral sin for Christ to worship Satan, I do not agree that it was even a temptation for Him. quote:
Matthew 4:10: Then Jesus said to him, "Be gone, Satan! For it is written, "'You shall worship the Lord your God and him only shall you serve.' ESV Notice that Christ does not even hesitate but “resists the devil” and commands for Him to be gone. Jesus went on to cite scripture. This is apparently not one of the temptations. quote:
James 1:13: Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: This passage is saying that there is nothing in God that has a tendency to wrong; there can be nothing presented from without to induce him to do wrong. The “tempted” here I believe refers to the antithesis of innocent temptation—an evil doing—because the passage fully declares that “…God cannot be tempted with evil…” This passage doesn’t state that God cannot be tempted; moreover it states that God cannot be tempted “with evil”. The Union does present some complexities in Christology for us to sort out. However, in those I do feel that Jesus exhibited characteristics strictly related to pre-fall human inclinations (hunger). When we fast we feel tempted to eat. This temptation is indeed a human inclination but it is not evil or a sin. I do not feel any of those inclinations violated or were at any time contrary to the nature of God “in Christ”. All this obviously places Christ in a “category” of His own. However the phrase "only begotten" should never lose its meaning. Some humans excel in areas that others do not, does this make them non-human? No. Some humans do not feel the urge for certain vices, yet others do. Is this and indication of different species? No.
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