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Ezra -> RE: Could Jesus have sinned? (4/27/2008 11:40:43 PM)
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quote:
I offer Hebrews 4:15 in support - For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are--yet was without sin. Actually this verse says the exact opposite of what you believe it says. Firstly, let us look at the actual verse in the Greek transliterated -- ou-gar hechomen archierea me dunamenon-de sumpathesai tais-astheneias-emon, pepeiramenon-de kata panta kath-homoioteta choris hamartias. This is literally translated in Berry's Interlinear NT as: For not have we a high priest not able to sympathise with our infirmities, but [who] has been tempted in all things according to [our] likeness, apart from sin. The comment on "apart from sin" from Jamieson, Fausset and Brown is: quote:
without sin--Greek, "choris," "separate from sin" (Hebrews 7:26). If the Greek "aneu" had been used, sin would have been regarded as the object absent from Christ the subject; but choris here implies that Christ, the subject, is regarded as separated from sin the object [TITTMANN]. Thus, throughout His temptations in their origin, process, and result, sin had nothing in Him; He was apart and separate from it [ALFORD]. This comment is critical since it gives the lie to the teaching that Christ could have sinned. "Sin had nothing in Him" means exactly that. John Gill and Matthew Henry say the very same thing -- Christ could not sin (I refer to these commentaries since they are readily available on this website). That is why Heb. 7:26 says He is "separate from sinners". Again, "according to our likeness" means that He was fully human but not with our tainted humanity (Phil. 2:6-8). He was sinless in His humanity. His was a humanity unlike that of the children of Adam. The second Man is the Lord from Heaven (1 Cor. 15:47). There was nothing within Him to respond to sinful temptations. Furthermore, we cannot take any verse in Scripture in isolation, therefore this verse must be taken in the context of the Person and nature of Christ. The context of Christ being not able to sin is found in Isaiah 7:14 and 9:6, so let us consider these very carefully: "Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call His name IMMANUEL... For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon His shoulders: and His name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, THE MIGHTY GOD, THE EVERLASTING FATHER, the Prince of Peace." Jesus is the Lord God Almighty (Rev. 1:8,11,17,18), the everlasting Father, God with us (Immanuel). Can God sin? "Behold, He putteth no trust in His saints; yea THE HEAVENS ARE NOT CLEAN IN HIS SIGHT. How much more abominable and filthy is man, which drinketh iniquity like water?" (Job 15:15,16). As I have stated earlier, we simply fail to understand that Christ is not just a man. He is the God-Man, hence unique in every way. Even so He can sympathize with our weaknesses and infirmities without condoning our sins.
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